Two musical instruments were purchased for rs 8000. the first was sold at a profit of 40% and second at a loss of 40%. if the sale price was same in both the cases , then the cost price of the cheaper instrument was?
Answers
Let X be the cost price of 1 instrument
Cost price of other instrument=8000-X
profit on 1st instrument=40%
Selling price=X(1+40/100)=1•4X
Loss on 2nd instrument=40%
Selling price=(8000-X)(1–40/100)=(8000-X)ו6=4800-•6X
Since selling price is same
1•4X=4800-•6X
1•4X+•6X=4800
X=2400 cost price of 1 instrument
8000–2400=5600 cost price of 2nd instrument
hence cost price of cheaper instrument was 2400
Given:
- Two musical instruments were purchased for rs 8000.
- The first was sold at a profit of 40%
- Second at a loss of 40%
- Sale price was same in both the cases
To find:
The cost price of the cheaper instrument
Solution:
Let the cost price for both instruments be x and y respectively.
Now,
x + y = 8000 ....(1)
Sale price for first instrument is
x + 40x/100...(2)
sale price for second instrument is
y - 40y/100 ...(3)
now, it is given that the selling price for both were equal
x + 40x/100 = y - 40y/100
140x = 60y
7x = 3y
7x/3 = y .. (4)
Putting value of y from 4 in 1
x + 7x/3 = 8000
10x = 24000
x = 2400
Putting the value of x in 4
7 (2400)/ 3 = y
5600 = y
Hence the cost price for the cheaper instrument was Rs. 5600.