Math, asked by Bambozeled69, 6 months ago

Using Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem show that

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Answered by peermohamed54362
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The Mean Value Theorem (MVT)

f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a). This theorem (also known as First Mean Value Theorem) allows to express the increment of a function on an interval through the value of the derivative at an intermediate point of the segment.

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