Math, asked by avmourya123, 9 months ago

Verify Cauchy's mean value theorem for functions f(x) = sin x, g(x) = cos x in the interval 0,π/2​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
13

We have to verify Cauchy's mean value theorem for the given functions

f(x) = sinx \\g(x)= cosx

for the interval x ∈ (0,\frac{\pi }{2})

  • Cauchy's mean value theorem states that,

If two functions f(x) and g(x) are continous on closed interval [a.b] and     differentiable on open interval (a,b) and g(x) ≠ 0, ∀ x∈ (a,b) , Then there exist a point c ∈ (a,b) such that

               \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)} = \frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}

  • Now, verifying cauchy's mean value theorem for the given functions

           f(x) = sinx \\g(x)= cosx

  • As sinx and cosx are continous and differential for all x ∈ R , therefore they are also continous for the interval x ∈ [0,\frac{\pi }{2}] and differentiable for the interval x ∈ (0,\frac{\pi }{2}).

       Hence cauchy's mean value theorem is valid

  • Now,

                  \frac{f(\frac{\pi }{2} ) - f(0)}{g(\frac{\pi }{2} ) - g(0)} = \frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}

                  \frac{sin\frac{\pi }{2}  - sin0}{cos\frac{\pi }{2}  - cos0} = \frac{cosc}{-sinc}

                  \frac{1-0}{0-1} = -\frac{cosc}{sinc}

                  \frac{cosc}{sinc} = 1\\cosc = sinc \\sin(\frac{\pi }{2} -c) = sinc\\\frac{\pi }{2} -c = c\\2c = \frac{\pi }{2} \\

               ∴  c = \frac{\pi }{4}(0,\frac{\pi }{2})

         Hence Cauchy's mean value theorem is verified.

Answered by hukam0685
3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : f(x) = sin x, g(x) = cos x

To find: Verify Cauchy's mean value theorem for the function sin x and cos x in the interval [0,π/2]

Solution:

Cauchy's mean value theorem:if interval [a,b]

 \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)}  =  \frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}  \\

Put the function and first order derivative in the formula

 \frac{sin \: \frac{\pi}{2} - sin \: 0}{cos \: \frac{\pi}{2} - cos \: 0}  =  \frac{cos \: c}{ - sin \: c}  \\  \\ \frac{1 - 0}{0 - 1}  =  -  \frac{cos \: c}{sin \: c}  \\  \\ or \\  \\ -\frac{1}{1}  =  - cot \: c  \: ...eq1

Now,put the value of 1 in terms of angle of cotangent.

  - 1=  - cot \: c \\  \\

 cot \:c =  1 \\\\ cot \:c=cot\:\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\\\\ c=\frac{\pi}{4} \\  \\

c lies in the closed interval [0,π/2].Thus, Cauchy's mean value theorem holds.

Final answer:

c=π/4 lies in the closed interval [0,π/2].

Thus, Cauchy's mean value theorem holds and have been proved.

Hope it helps you.

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