Math, asked by lakshmisailaja, 3 months ago

Verify whether [(a)power of-m]n=a to the power of mn with an example.

can anyone send me the answer for this question please.

Answers

Answered by mathdude500

1

No this statement is not true.
Because [(a)^-m]^n = [(1/a)^m]^n

Answered by akeertana503

0

Answer:

the above ans is correct

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