Math, asked by lakshmisailaja, 6 months ago

Verify whether [(a)power of-m]n=a to the power of mn with an example.

can anyone send me the answer for this question please.​

Answers

Answered by mathdude500
1
No this statement is not true.
Because [(a)^-m]^n = [(1/a)^m]^n
Answered by akeertana503
0

Answer:

the above ans is correct

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