Math, asked by chanchan99205, 8 months ago

waiting for the answer​

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Answers

Answered by sandhyabenny78
1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer would be 0.

This is given  a^m.a^n = a^mn.

If we use the power rule here we will get this:

a^m.a^n=a^(m+n).

∴ m + n = mn → (1)

Consider, m(n – 2) + n(m – 2)m = mn – 2m + mn – 2n

= 2mn – 2(m + n)

= 2mn – 2mn

= 0

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