Math, asked by shaheer49, 6 months ago

we all know that 1^0=1 then 0^0=?​

Answers

Answered by surya5299
10

Step 1: We can rewrite 15 as 7 + 87+8 or 8 + 78+7.

Step 2: This means that 7 + 8 = 8+ 77+8=8+7.

Step 3: If we move one term from each side of the equation to the other side, we will get 7-7 = 8-8.7−7=8−8.

Step 4: Dividing both sides by 8-88−8 gives \frac{7-7}{8-8} = 1

8−8

7−7

=1.

Step 5: Since 7-7= 07−7=0 and 8-8 = 08−8=0, \frac00 = 1

0

0

=1.

Answered by anand2485
1

Answer:

But we could also think of 00 having the value 0, because zero to any power (other than the zero power) is zero. Also, the logarithm of 00 would be 0 · infinity, which is in itself an indeterminate form. So laws of logarithms wouldn't work with it.

please mark as brainliest

Similar questions