we can say that if the number is divisible by 2 and 3 then the number is divisible by 6 and 2x3=6 so can we say that if the number is divisible by 2 and 4 then the number is divisible by 8 because 2x4=8
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no, it is not correct because there are some visibility rules of two-three five
seven nine and so on but no prime number are there in the indivisibility rule
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