Physics, asked by qwerty2338, 4 months ago

We know that,
g = GM/R²
=> g is independent of the mass of the object.
But, F = mg
=> F/m = g
=> F × 1/m = g
=> g ∝ 1/m
Then, is g proportional to mass of the object, or is g independent of the mass of the object ?​

Answers

Answered by srivastavanarayan9
0

Explanation: I think the answer is yes because the object has more mass the acceleration due to gravity means small g is less and when the object has small mass the acceleration due to gravity means small g is more. but when an object free fall towards the earth .

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