Physics, asked by jahnavi011, 10 months ago

we know that Q=It and V = W/Q so V=W/It. this implies that Voltage is inversely proportional to current. why then is according to ohm's law is it directly proportional to it?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
0

actually the error in your statement is that the symbol of equal to is not a proportion sovika not say that voltage is inversely proportional to current if there is no proportional sign and if there is an proportional sign then there would be shortly a great change in the equation


jahnavi011: but we consider so in other calculation s
bharti7267: yes , if it really meant that V = W ÷ Q.I then change in I will change The value of V in inverse proportion .
bharti7267: Yours answer feels incorrect though . Plz check mine and tell if that feels correct to you
Anonymous: actually you are missing the meaning of proportional symbol
Answered by bharti7267
2

Hello mate ,

Because in V = W ÷ Q .

We always take Q = 1 ( Unit or test charge )

So Q can't put an effect here. Remember We made a assumption that this test charge can't affect .

So It will always be equal to 1 (here ) which makes it constant ( here ) because time will be constant too .

So this only tells us that V is proportional to W but not inversely proportional to I .

Hope this helps you .

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