Question

We know that the multiplicative inverse does not exist for zero then are Rational numbers under multiplication is a group?

Answer 1

Answer:

Here it is

Step-by-step explanation:

Any number times its own multiplicative inverse equals one, and the multiplicative inverse of x is written as 1x. To find the multiplicative inverse of a rational number, we simply invert the fraction—that is, flip it over. But for zero if u flip also it will be zero. Wherever there is given multiplicative inverse of zero mark it as not defined. It does not exist itself means how can u write?

Hope it helps u