Social Sciences, asked by Maheshthenerd, 1 year ago

What did the EEIC do to have monopoly of Indian trade?

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2
Here's your answer!!!
earlier east India company had found it difficult to ensure a regular supply of goods for export as French Dutch Portuguese as well as the local traders competed as well...
however once east India company established political power....it started asserting monopoly right to trade....
the company tried to eliminate the existing traders connected with cloth trade and established a direct control over weavers...
They appointed a paid servant called gomasthas to supervise weavers... they collected supplies and examine quality of goods....
They prevented weavers from dealing with other buyers...
one way of doing this was the system of advances...
Those who took loans had to hand over clothes to gomasthas...
Hope it helps!!!

Maheshthenerd: Thanks a lot
Anonymous: yr welcome
Answered by VJTHUNDER
0

Answer:

Before 1790s the British did not receive much goods and services for their company and they hadn't much improvement in their trade

Explanation:

Niw after establishing the political power in India

british started to make more efficient trade

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