History, asked by mrcrabby405, 4 months ago

What did the Indians have to give to the landowners? 20 points!

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Answered by Mayura680
2

Answer:

Before British rule there was no formal individual ownership of land in India. However, during the two centuries of British rule (1757–1947), India’s traditional land ownership and land use patterns were changed with the introduction of the concept of “private property”.

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Answered by XxFlyingworldxX
1

Answer:

WHAT DID THE INDIANS HAVE TO GIVE TO THE LANDOWNERS?

ANS.MONEY AND GOLD

In India, 50 or 100 years ago, land was a defining feature of wealth. The stock of land generated a flow of income. The landless were low-paid agricultural labourer. The landed gentry of rural India were the kings of their heap. They had power, prestige, position, prosperity.

India, 50 or 100 years ago, land was a defining feature of wealth. The stock of land generated a flow of income. The landless were low-paid agricultural labourer. The landed gentry of rural India were the kings of their heap. They had power, prestige, position, prosperity.In the eyes of many, the initial conditions of high inequality of land ownership were a key barrier that held India back. It was argued that a one-time bout of bloodshed was essential, to expropriate the rich, and to transfer land ownership into a more equitable distribution. In India, this capacity for State-inflicted bloodshed was present in some places only. In much of India, the unequal distribution of land ownership found in 1947 was left intact.

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