Question

What is the answer of this given question

Answer 1

Answer:

We know that Acceleration a=

t

v−u

=

8−0

0−80

=−10ms

−2

Now, Force=ma

m=50g=

1000

50

kg

So, F=ma=

1000

50

×10=0.5N

frictional force oppose the motion, so it is taken as positive with direction opposote to velocity.

Answer 2

a) BM = CM (M is the mid point of BC)

<BMN = <CMD (Vertically opposite angles)

<BNM = <CDM (Alternate interior angles as AB ll CD)

b) Yes, ∆MBN = ∆MCD

Because ∆MBN is congruent to ∆MCD

c) Congruent triangle have same areas. So, area of ∆MBN = area of ∆MCD

Hope it helps!!

Thank you ✌️