Math, asked by BendingReality, 11 months ago

What is the number of real solution x of the equation \displaystyle{\cos^2(x\sin(2x))+\frac{1}{1+x^2} =\cos^2 x+ \sec^2 x} ?

Answers

Answered by shadowsabers03
2

Given,

\sf{\cos^2(x\sin(2x))+\dfrac{1}{1+x^2} =\cos^2 x+ \sec^2 x}

From this equation I got some features given below.

  • For any \sf{\theta,} value of \sf{\cos^2\theta} ranges from 0 to 1.

Hence the term \sf{\cos^2(x\sin(2x))} in the LHS can only have the values from 0 to 1.

  • \sf{0\ \textless\ \dfrac {1}{1+x^2}\leq1\ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}.}

Therefore the entire LHS can give a sum ranging from 0 to 2. But unfortunately,

  • The minimum possible value of the RHS \sf{\cos^2x+\sec^2x} is 2 (Recall the AM ≥ GM inequality).

Hence the LHS should also have a minimum value of 2 but the LHS has 2 as the maximum value. This implies there may exist some solutions for which both the sides of the equation are equalling to 2.

For the RHS, I mean, for the equation \sf{\cos^2x+\sec^2x=2,} has a general solution \sf{x=n\pi,\ n\in\mathbb{Z}.}

So taking \sf{x=n\pi} for the LHS equalling to 2, and,

\longrightarrow\sf{\cos^2(n\pi\sin (2n\pi))+\dfrac {1}{1+(n\pi)^2}=2}

Since \sf{\sin (n\pi)=0,}

\longrightarrow\sf{1+\dfrac {1}{1+n^2\pi^2}=2}

This implies,

\longrightarrow\sf{n^2\pi^2=0}

Or,

\longrightarrow\sf{n=0}

Hence,

\longrightarrow\sf{x=0}

This means there exists a unique solution \sf{x=0} for the equation \sf{\cos^2(x\sin(2x))+\dfrac{1}{1+x^2} =\cos^2 x+ \sec^2 x.}

Thus the no. of real solutions for the equation is 1.

Answered by Anonymous
0

Answer:

1+cos(2x)‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√=2‾√sin−1(sinx)Period of sinx is 2π and that of cos(2x) is 2π2=πHence overall period is L.C.M. of (π,2π)=2πHence we can find total number of solutions in interval of 2π and multiply answer by total intervals of 2π in given interval.Given interval is [−10π,10π][−10π,10π] contains 10π−(−10π)2π=20π2π=10 intervals of 2π1+cos(2x)‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√=2‾√sin−1(sinx)⇒1+2cos2x−1‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√=2‾√sin−1(sinx)⇒2cos2x‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√=2‾√sin−1(sinx)⇒2‾√∣∣cosx∣∣=2‾√sin−1(sinx)⇒∣∣cosx∣∣=sin−1(sinx)When x∈[−π2,π2]cosx is positive, hence ∣∣cosx∣∣=cosxAnd we know that sin−1(sinx)=x when x∈[−π2,π2]⇒cosx=xDraw the graphs of cosx and x on same graph paper in specified interval.

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