Math, asked by ruchigarg198, 1 year ago

What must be subtracted from (4x^4- 2x^3 - 6x^2 + 2x+6) so that the
result is exactly divisible by (2x^2 + x - 1)?​

Answers

Answered by atulkingofkings9
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2x^2 + x - 2.

(4x^4 - 2x^3 - 6x^2 + x -5) divided by (2x^2 + x - 2) gives a quotient of 2x^2 - 2x and a remainder of -3x-5.

So you need to subtract (-3x-5) from the dividend.

Check: (4x^4 - 2x^3 - 6x^2 + x -5) -(-3x-5)

= 4x^4 - 2x^3 - 6x^2 + x -5 + 3x + 5

= (4x^4 - 2x^3 - 6x^2 + 4x) divided by (2x^2 + x - 2) gives a quotient of 2x^2 - 2x and a remainder of 0. Correct.

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