Math, asked by harshvardhankumarsin, 2 months ago

What must be subtracted from (4x^4 - 2x^3 – 6x² + 2x + 6) so that the
result is exactly divisible by (2x² + x - 1)?​

Answers

Answered by Sardrni
2

Answer:

Lets divide (4x4-2x3 - 6x² + x - 5) by (2x²+x

1) as shown.

2x²+x-1) 4x4 - 2x² - 6x²+x-5 (2x² - 2x - 1

4x4 + 2x³ - 2x² + -4x³ - 2x² + 2x + + -6

-4x² - 4x² + x

-2x²-x-5 -2x²-x+1 + +

Hence (-6) should be subtracted from (4x4 - 2x36x². + x - 5) so that the resulting polynomial is exactly divisible by (2x² + x - 1).

Answered by Anonymous
2

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