History, asked by raj46567, 8 months ago

What was the difference between the farman of 1691 and the farman of 1717??​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
4

Answer:

Background:

In 1714, an Englishman John Surman was sent to Delhi Court for securing trading facilities for the company.

He succeeded in obtaining from Emperor Farukhsiyar a farman in 1717

The East India Company secured valuable privileges in 1717 under the royal farman

What’s the Farman?

The Company was permitted to carry on trade in Bengal, Bombay and Madras free of customs duty.

The Company was also permitted to mint its own coins.

The Nawabs of Bengal, however, showed scant regard for the imperial farman

Granted the Company the freedom to export and import their goods in Bengal without paying taxes

Right to issue passes or dastaks for the movements of such goods.

The Company servants were also permitted to trade but were not covered by this farman. They were required to pay the same taxes as Indian merchants.

SO?

This farman was a perpetual source of conflict between the Company and the Nawabs of Bengal.

All the Nawabs of Bengal from Mushid Quli Khan to Alivardi Khan, had objected to the English interpretation of the farman of 1717.

They had compelled the Company to pay lumps sums to their treasury, and firmly suppressed the misuse of dastaks

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