Question

what will be the answer ?​

Answer 1

Answer:

hi buddy

Step-by-step explanation:

I think the answer is C.

Answer 2

$\textcolor{red}{SOLUTION}$

We know that

$1 + w + {w}^{2} = 0$

So

${ (w+ {w}^{2} + {w}^{3}) }^{ \frac{1}{6} }$

$= {w}^{ \frac{1}{6} } {(1 +w + {w}^{2}) }^{ \frac{1}{6} }$

$= 0$