Social Sciences, asked by Vickyvic2139, 1 year ago

When does the historic decline of women start? By marx?

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Answered by gopeshtiwari26
0
The approach of Marx with respect to women and the family was little different than that of conventional economics. In the Marxian model, women were part of the household, responsible for bearing and raising children and for maintaining the household. While there may have been a recognition that this was necessary work, it was not work that was valued through exchange and did not form part of the model of capitalist production. 

Friedrich Engels did pay more attention to this issue in his writings and a year after Marx died, in 1884, Engels published The Origin of the Family, Private Property and the State. Until the 1970s, when Marxist feminist approaches began to be developed, this provided the main outlines of the Marxian approach to the oppression of women and the inequalities within the family and household. For Engels, the patriarchal family emerged with the development of agriculture, where males began to develop private property in animals, tools, and land, and attempted to control more of the surplus. In order to "ensure the legitimacy of their heirs" (p. 31) and perhaps to control women's sexuality, men established dominance within the household and society, and established patrilineal lines of inheritance. This resulted in the "world historical defeat of the female sex" and women were reduced to servitude and an instrument for the production of children. With the development of capitalism, this system continued and became especially important for property owners - the bourgeoisie. Since the working class has no property, such control was not necessary, and Engels implies that male/female inequalities within the working class are minimal. 

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