Question

which of the following is correct for the normalized wave function €+​

Answer 1

Answer:

b

Explanation:

i hope help full for you

Answer 2

Correct option is C) Normalized wave function €+​ said to be normalized if ∫|ϕ(x)|2=1.

Explanation:

• The Schrodinger equation helps to give us the wavefunction of a particle at any particular time, but the wavefunction itself is of no use by itself.
• Wave function  Ψ  must be finite, single-valued, continuous, and should be zero at an infinite distance.
• A normalized wave function Ψ (x) would be said to be normalized. The condition if ∫|ϕ(x)|2=1. If it is not 1 and is equal to some other constant,  then the constant into the wave function will tend to normalize it and scale the probability to 1 again.