Math, asked by AbhinavGahlyan, 3 months ago

Why 1!(1 factorial) is 1 and 0!(0 factorial) is 1? Explain it.​

Answers

Answered by anirbanbhukta551
1

Before we proceed I think its good idea to define Factorial first, here is what Wikipedia says:

It is a non-negative integer n, denoted by n!, is the product of all positive integer less than or equal to n.

n!=n∗(n−1)∗(n−2)∗(n−3)∗...3∗2∗1

However the recursive definition of factorial is of more use in this proof.

n!={1n∗(n−1)!n=1n≥0

Recursive definition of Factorial leads to one interesting way of expressing factorial numbers.

n!=(n+1)!(n+1)

This is valid since, as we expand (n+1)! from recursive definition, we can cancel (n+1) term from both numerator and denominator to get n! . Or we can even calculate factorial in numerator and then evaluate the division

For example,

5!=6!6=7206

4!=5!5=1205

3!=4!4=244

2!=3!3=63

1!=2!2=22

In a similar way, if we try to express 0! we get

0!=1!/1=1

And this ends our proof that 0!=1 .

This proof is one of many ways, where 0! leads to 1 . But this one is quite explanatory in itself.

There is one more interesting question I would like to share which was in my mind back in those days.

WHY DO WE NEED 0! ?

And the answer is computation of number of Combination.

(n/k)=n!/k!(n−k)!

when k=n

(n/n)=n!/n!∗0!

This is one of many application of 0! . But this example give a really good idea where we can make use of 0!=1 .

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