why 2 pi is used in formula of simple pendulum?
Fast
Answers
Answered by
0
The bob is constrained to move along a circular arc and it can be shown from simple geometry that the force that moves the bob is proportional to the sine of the angle, not the angle itself.
So for example, if the angle is π, or 180 degrees, the force is zero. This is with the pendulum all the way at the top of a possible swing (Of course the string would have to be a massless rod for this to be possible), and it would balance there without moving. sinπ=0.
Answered by
0
The bob is constrained to move along a circular arc and it can be shown from simple geometry that the force that moves the bob is proportional to the sine of the angle, not the angle itself.
So for example, if the angle is π, or 180 degrees, the force is zero. This is with the pendulum all the way at the top of a possible swing (Of course the string would have to be a massless rod for this to be possible), and it would balance there without moving. sinπ=0.
PLEASE MARK AS BRAIN LIST
So for example, if the angle is π, or 180 degrees, the force is zero. This is with the pendulum all the way at the top of a possible swing (Of course the string would have to be a massless rod for this to be possible), and it would balance there without moving. sinπ=0.
PLEASE MARK AS BRAIN LIST
Similar questions
English,
7 months ago
Math,
7 months ago
English,
7 months ago
Social Sciences,
1 year ago
Social Sciences,
1 year ago
Physics,
1 year ago