Science, asked by zzmradhurheaV, 1 year ago

Why 'a' is not equla to f/m

Answers

Answered by Tasmeeh

0

is it newton's second law of motion? then, a should be equal to f/m. I don't see why it wouldn't be, unless you're talking quantum mechanics

Answered by Hemang12

0

it is
f=ma
AF=m
a=m/f

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