Question

why did modern industrialisation first occured in Britain only? :-)

Answer 1

- High Income and GDP: The Britishers had the high income as compared to the other countries in the world and the income of people in Britain was also relatively higher. And because of this British was able to afford the machinery.

- Well Developed Financial Sector: London was already a center of trade and finance and because of the that Britain already had good finances to afford the industrialization.

- Enough Resources for Industrialization: The Britishers owned enough iron and coal, and other resources which contributed to the development of the factories and they used rivers for water-driven machinery.

- International Trade: The Britishers could afford the capital-intensive machinery because of the international trade they were carrying out before and also they could export and import products.

- Urbanization: This contributed to the development of railway lines and other infrastructure facilities which made ways to the nearer cities for trading purposes.

So Britain had whatever it takes to become the industrialized country, they had the finances as well as the facilities.

Answer 2

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Reasons:-

• Political stability
• Modest climate
• availability of continuous water power
• Transportation facilities
• Abundant wealth
• Availability of labour
• Invention of machinery.