Why did most European powers use indirect rule to control their colonies?
Answers
Explanation:
Japan had built a modern army and navy that had won two brief wars. It had beaten China in 1894-1895 and Russia in 1904-1905. ... Japan's next step was to try to become a world power and dominate the Pacific. This ambition would lead inevitably to the attack on Pearl Harbor and war with the United States.
Here, to give you a small sense of European colonialism's massive scale, is a map showing every country put under partial or total European control during the colonial era, which ran roughly from the 1500s to the 1960s. Only five countries, in orange, were spared:
just about every corner of the globe was colonized outright or was dominated under various designations like "protectorate" or "mandate," all of which are indicated in green. This includes the entirety of the Americas (French Guiana is incorrectly labeled as part of Europe due a technical issue, but make no mistake, it was colonized) and all of Africa save for little Liberia. More on Liberia later. The Middle East and Asia were divided up as well.
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Answer:
most European colonizers resorted to indirect rule, relying on governments that were already there but exerting control over their leaders.
Explanation: