English, asked by shzsyd15, 9 days ago

Why did Quaid-e-Azam demand a separate state for the Muslims
of the sub-continent?​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
22

Answer:

At first they demanded separate electorates, but when they opined that Muslims would not be safe in a Hindu-dominated India, they began to demand a separate state.

Explanation:

Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

By 1940, Jinnah had come to believe that the Muslims of the subcontinent should have their own state to avoid the possible marginalised status they may gain in an independent Hindu–Muslim state.

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