Why does equility sign change in complement of sets?
Answers
Answered by
0
From what I've learned in my stats class when you have (>)
P
(
X
>
x
)
you make it (>)=1−(≤)
P
(
X
>
x
)
=
1
−
P
(
X
≤
x
)
. I think I understand that you have to do this inequality change because you can't calculate a probability of any possible number being greater than
x
, but I don't understand why greater than changes to less than or equal to.
P
(
X
>
x
)
you make it (>)=1−(≤)
P
(
X
>
x
)
=
1
−
P
(
X
≤
x
)
. I think I understand that you have to do this inequality change because you can't calculate a probability of any possible number being greater than
x
, but I don't understand why greater than changes to less than or equal to.
Answered by
3
hi mate ur answer..
if it is helpful to u mark me as brainlist....
Attachments:
srithi1287:
she is so beautiful
srry.. i didn’t write this...
i am ur new friend..
she my sis...
she wrote..
ok
it's ok
You guys
Please do it somewhere else
My phone is blowing up
Similar questions