Question

Why does equility sign change in complement of sets?

Answer 1

From what I've learned in my stats class when you have (>)
P
(
X
>
x
)
you make it (>)=1−(≤)
P
(
X
>
x
)
=
1
−
P
(
X
≤
x
)
. I think I understand that you have to do this inequality change because you can't calculate a probability of any possible number being greater than
x
, but I don't understand why greater than changes to less than or equal to.

Answer 2

hi mate ur answer..

if it is helpful to u mark me as brainlist....