Math, asked by metucua1, 4 months ago

why does every subset of a infinite set is infinite

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Answer:

(a) Is false since the set N of all natural numbers is an infinite set having a finite subset, i.e., (1)

(b) is false since ϕ has not proper subsets. (c) is false since number of subsets of an empty set is odd (i.e., 2∘=1).

Hope it helps you.. :)

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