Why does the $c$-theorem work?
Answers
Answered by
6
Hey mate ^_^
Since both triangles' sides are the same lengths a, b and c, the triangles are congruent and must have the same angles.....
Therefore, the angle between the side of lengths a and b in the original triangle is a right angle....
The above proof of the converse makes use of the Pythagorean theorem itself.....
#Be Brainly❤️
Since both triangles' sides are the same lengths a, b and c, the triangles are congruent and must have the same angles.....
Therefore, the angle between the side of lengths a and b in the original triangle is a right angle....
The above proof of the converse makes use of the Pythagorean theorem itself.....
#Be Brainly❤️
Answered by
10
Héy buddy.!!
#so, Thé ÃnSwer is -- According to the PythagoreanTheorem, the sum of the areas of the two red squares, squares A and B, isequal to the area of the blue square, square C. Thus, the PythagoreanTheorem stated algebraically is: for a right triangle with sides of lengths a, b, and c, where c is the length of the hypotenuse.
#ThankYou
I hope It's help!! Follow me
#so, Thé ÃnSwer is -- According to the PythagoreanTheorem, the sum of the areas of the two red squares, squares A and B, isequal to the area of the blue square, square C. Thus, the PythagoreanTheorem stated algebraically is: for a right triangle with sides of lengths a, b, and c, where c is the length of the hypotenuse.
#ThankYou
I hope It's help!! Follow me
Similar questions