Question

why is 0!=1 and not zero or infinity​

Answer 1

$\huge \purple {Answer}$

We know that x!= x(x-1)!

(x-1)! = $\frac {x!}{x}$

Let x= 1

(1-1)! = $\frac {1!}{1}$

We know that 1!=1

Therefore, 0! = 1

$\boxed {Hence, Proved}$

Answer 2

$\star \purple {AnsWer}$

We know that x!= x(x-1)!

(x-1)! = $\frac {x!}{x} </p><p>$

x!

Let x= 1

(1-1)! = $\frac {1!}{1}$

1

1!

We know that 1!=1

Therefore, 0! = 1

$\boxed {\purple {Hope \:it \:helps}}$