Why is 0! = 1. What's the derivation?
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Answered by
13
◇ Answer ◇
Okay...We Know
n! = n.×n-1×n-2×......
so, n! = n(n-1)!
Put , n=1...
1! = 1 = 1(1-1)!
1=1(0)!
0! = 1
Hence Proved
#SupermanINFINITY
Okay...We Know
n! = n.×n-1×n-2×......
so, n! = n(n-1)!
Put , n=1...
1! = 1 = 1(1-1)!
1=1(0)!
0! = 1
Hence Proved
#SupermanINFINITY
SupermanINFINITY:
The City Needs Help
-flies away
Hey man it does have derivation....answer only if you know the answer please! !!
The Deeivation is a proof to itself
but ...as u asked for it
Its still a peice of theory
-flies away-
Answered by
3
hey mate here urs answer
o! = 1
proof = n'= n(n-1) !
substitute n=1
now, 1! = 1 (1-1)!
1 = 0!
hence , 0! = 1 .
I hope My answer will help u dhruv ^_^ ...
o! = 1
proof = n'= n(n-1) !
substitute n=1
now, 1! = 1 (1-1)!
1 = 0!
hence , 0! = 1 .
I hope My answer will help u dhruv ^_^ ...
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