Math, asked by simersus, 1 day ago

Why is f not a function from R to R if a) f(x) = 1/x

Answers

Answered by jitendra12iitg
0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the function f(x)=\frac{1}{x} is not defined for x=0, thats why it is not a function from R to R

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