Social Sciences, asked by princebaheti13, 9 months ago

why is per capita income inversely proportional to population of the country​

Answers

Answered by pavan3371
0

Explanation:

Context 1

... growth that is less equitable will have different impacts on aggregate expenditure patterns and hence economic diversification than countries with similar but more equitable growth. But the cross-country empirical evidence for the basic inverse relationship between per capita income and the agricultural employment share is compelling (Figures 1 and 2). ...

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Context 2

... country data in Figure 1 show a strong negative relationship, but with considerable country variation due to factors like differences in comparative advantage and income inequality. As should be expected, the regional averages follow the regression line more tightly. ...

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Context 3

... had to use a common sample for 1980, 1990 and 2000 which contained country-level data on the agricultural employment share, RUPID, and per capita income. This allowed us to use only 54 countries of the 69 countries plotted in Figure 1. ...

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