Economy, asked by thabangernest911, 1 month ago

why is the price discrimination not possible under perfect market conditions

Answers

Answered by shravankumardbg2004

0

Answer:

A Price-Setting Firm The firm must have some degree of monopoly power—it must be a price setter. A price-taking firm can only take the market price as given—it is not in a position to make price choices of any kind. Thus, firms in perfectly competitive markets will not engage in price discrimination.

Explanation:

Hope its help you...

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 18 days ago

in fig. Dis point of line BC such that CD=2BC if triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle then prove that AD² = 7BC² ...

English, 18 days ago

Identify the noun of the word highlighted. Rekha is a brave girl. She is awarded for her "braveness". A Proper B Countable с Common D Abstract...

Math, 18 days ago

Chapter 7 of maths ex 7.2 of class 8 ...

History, 1 month ago

is examining ruins old forts an example of archaeology...

English, 1 month ago

the book including the CD and the free gifts are not worth the price.correct the verb in the following sentences to make them agree with the subjects.

Math, 8 months ago

AL and CM are parpendiculars to the diagonal BD of a parallelogram ABCD. prove that. 1. ∆ADL=~∆CBM 2. AL= CM.

Social Sciences, 8 months ago

Who discovered the sea route to India a) Columbus b) Prince Hanry c) Vasco da Gama ...

Music, 8 months ago

who is known as king of dance...