Why is the susceptibility $\chi(t)$ real?
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Hey mate ^_^
It is known that the frequency domain susceptbility χ(ω) is complex, and that the two parts can be related with the Kramers-Kronig relations. But the time domain susceptibility, χ(t)χ(t), is said to be real, according to my textbook...
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It is known that the frequency domain susceptbility χ(ω) is complex, and that the two parts can be related with the Kramers-Kronig relations. But the time domain susceptibility, χ(t)χ(t), is said to be real, according to my textbook...
#Be Brainly❤️
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Hello mate here is your answer.
No, E(t) is never complex. It is taken to be complex after we get the complex frequency-dependent susceptibility, because it just makes the math easier. However when we take E complex, we're just omitting the fact, that we have a complex E(f) and the complex conjugate E(-f) which cancel out the imaginary part.
Hope it helps you.
No, E(t) is never complex. It is taken to be complex after we get the complex frequency-dependent susceptibility, because it just makes the math easier. However when we take E complex, we're just omitting the fact, that we have a complex E(f) and the complex conjugate E(-f) which cancel out the imaginary part.
Hope it helps you.
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