Question

Why is the temporal gauge $A_0=0$ so popular in discussions of non-perturbative effects?

Answer 1

Hey mate ^_^

To single out the relevant degree of freedom in the infinite-dimensional space of the gluon fields, it is necessary to proceed to the Hamiltonian formulation of Yang-Mills theory....

This implies, of course, that the time component of the four-potential Aμ has to be gauged away, A0=0....

#Be Brainly❤️

Answer 2

Hello mate here is your answer.

To single out the relevant degree of freedom in the infinite-dimensional space of the gluon fields, it is necessary to proceed to the Hamiltonian formulation of Yang-Mills theory. This implies, of course, that the time component of the four-potential AμAμ has to be gauged away, A0=0A0=0.

Hope it helps you.