Social Sciences, asked by basantdeshlahre18, 1 month ago

Why is the term " modern age " as given by British historians not applicable to India ?​

Answers

Answered by NehaNagal
2

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The modern age, described by the British historians, extends from 1500 to 1800 in the western countries. ... The term is not applicable to India because under the British rule people did not have equality, freedom or liberty. It was not a period of economic growth for India.

Answered by viratdhoni187
2

Answer:

  • The modern age, described by the British historians, extends from 1500 to 1800 in the western countries.

  • The term is not applicable to India because under the British rule people did not have equality, freedom or liberty.

  • It was not a period of economic growth for India.
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