Why is the term 'morden age ' as given by british historians, not applicable to india?
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The modern age, described by the British historians,
extends from 1500 to 1800 in the western countries. It is related to democracy,
equality, liberty, science, reason, discoveries and economic growth. The term
is not applicable to India because under the British rule people did not have
equality, freedom or liberty. It was not a period of economic growth for India.
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