Chemistry, asked by malkakhaitan13p4wg8u, 1 year ago

why is the valency of phosphorus given as 3 and 5

Answers

Answered by arthurcurry1234
0
Valency of phosphorus is 3 only.

malkakhaitan13p4wg8u: sorry you are absolutely wrong
Shivam011: 5 is the no. of electrons in the outer most shell
Shivam011: So, the valency is 3
jayasree2017: valency means the combining capacity a an atom so 3 is the valency p=2,8,5 it need 3 more electrons to maintain its octet so 3 is the right answer
Anonymous: u r wrong!!
jayasree2017: so what is the right answer then
arthurcurry1234: Explanation:
P has 5 electrons in the outer most shell. So in order to be stable it will either loose 5 electrons or gain 3 electrons by following octet rule. Hence it is a non metal and non metals tend to gain electrons.
so P gain 3 electrons to acquire the noble has configuration.
It becomes P^-3 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6
Anonymous: bro, it also posses valence of 5
Answered by Anonymous
4
HEYA MATE!!

PHOSPHORUS HAS HIGH IONIZATION ENERGY, SO THAT'S WHY IT HAS TO VALENCY, IN WHICH ONE IS NORMAL AS OTHER ATOMS CONTAIN THAT IS 3, WHILE 5 IS DUE TO ITS HIGH IONIZATION ENERGY.

#KEVIN

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Anonymous: tnx for brainliest..
malkakhaitan13p4wg8u: gorgeous answer
malkakhaitan13p4wg8u: thanks
Anonymous: wlcm
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