Why is Universal Suffrage superior to granting voting rights only to the educated people?
Answers
Answered by
1
Explanation:
The Inalienable Right to Vote. Six decades after Lyndon B. Johnson observed, “A man without a vote is a man without protection,” the Supreme Court ruled that the right to vote is more “use it or lose it.
Answered by
0
Answer:
this is the answer of your question I hope it helps you in solving your issue
Attachments:
Similar questions