Economy, asked by anki8716, 1 year ago

Why is value of floating leg always 1 at originatin

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Answered by Anonymous
0

\huge\mathbb\red{BONJOUR,}

\huge\mathfrak{Answer:}

At time t=0, swap has zero cost. In fact, both parties may have valued the swap differently based on their zero swap curve-but somehow they agreed.

<font color ="purple"><marquee behavior ="alternate"> ~♥~~♥~Hope It Helps~♥~~♥~</font color ="purple "></marquee behavior="alternate">

\huge\mathfrak{Regards}

\huge\mathbb\red{Aaravxxx}

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