Math, asked by yashTembhare, 1 year ago

why log 1 to the base a is zero​

Answers

Answered by vidjaksh
0

because log a to the base n = x then apower x should be 1 in your question so anything power 0 would be 1. hope you understand please mark brainliest.

Answered by theAmresh
1

let \: say \:  log_{a}(1)  = x

according \: to \: the \: definition  \\  {a}^{x}  = 1

now \: if \: a  \: is \: not \: equal \: to \: 1 then \\   =  >  \:  \:  \:  \: x = 0

like \: if \: a = 5 \: then \:  {5}^{0}  = 1 \\ and \\  log_{a}(1)  = 0

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