why something to the zero is equal to 1 (a^0 =1)
Answers
Answered by
0
we can write a=a^1,
we also know a/a=1 which is nothing but
a^1/a^1=a^(1-1)=a^0(law of exponents)
lokesh15344:
tnks man
Answered by
0
let us consider the following example-
we know that when we divide two no. with same base and different powers, the powers will subtracted.
it is becomes -
in the same way, we know that
Solving the LHS we get,
Similar questions