Math, asked by lokesh15344, 1 year ago

why something to the zero is equal to 1 (a^0 =1)​

Answers

Answered by vangauss
0

we can write a=a^1,

we also know a/a=1 which is nothing but

a^1/a^1=a^(1-1)=a^0(law of exponents)


lokesh15344: tnks man
Answered by jiyasinha2004
0

let us consider the following example-

 \frac{ {a}^{9} }{ {a}^{7} }   \\

we know that when we divide two no. with same base and different powers, the powers will subtracted.

it is becomes -

 {a}^{9 - 7}  =  {a}^{2}

in the same way, we know that

 \frac{a}{a}  = 1

 \frac{ {a}^{1} }{ {a}^{1} } = 1

Solving the LHS we get,

 {a}^{1 -  1}   = 1 \\  {a}^{0}  = 1


lokesh15344: tnks man
jiyasinha2004: plz mark as brainliest
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