English, asked by monikowstav, 10 months ago

why the mediaeval history has different time frame in Europe and India​

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Answered by silentlover45
0

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It is argued that neither the start nor the end of the period really mark fundamental changes in Indian history, comparable to the European equivalents. Burton Stein still used the concept in his A History of India but most recent authors using it are Indian. Understandably, they often specify the period they cover within their titles. Several historians view the death of emperor Aurangzeb as the end of Medieval Indian history and the start of Modern Indian history.

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