English, asked by harshumredkar, 4 months ago

why was shylock not given the deed in the court of Venice itself

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Answered by Anonymous

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The only answer that the court gets, ultimately, is that Shylock merely emulates Christian behavior. ... Just as some Christians own slaves, Shylock owns a pound of Antonio's flesh. Shylock has the law on his side, and his chief emotion seems to be outrage that Christian Venice would deny him what is rightfully his.

Answered by Anonymous

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