English, asked by ramjena2002, 1 year ago

why we should put have had in indirect speech

Answers

Answered by irtiqua55
0

because its the rule no. 10 that the indirect speech should be in the respective perfect tense

Answered by Anonymous
0

Answer:

because in indirect speech to change the tense we should go one step ahead

Explanation:

Example:

Ram said,"I went to Agra."

ans:Ram said that he had gone to Agra

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