Question

why x°=1 please answer this question fast

Answer 1

x^0 can be written as x^(y-y) where y is any number and since y-y is zero, we aren't making any change. By a property of exponents, x^(y-y) =x^y / x^y. Since both numerator and denominator are the same number and are equal, the fraction cancels out to be one. Hence, x^0=1

Answer 2

hai friend,

here is your answer,


as we know that

a^m /a ^n =a^(m-n)

for example, take 4/4

2²/2²=2^(2-2)=2^0 ....(1)

and according to laws of division

4/4 =1 ......(2)

here equating (1)and (2)

we
get

2^0=1

as this is possible for every number,


so finally


x^0=1

hence proved