Math, asked by psanika664, 3 months ago

Without
truth tave
prove that
using
~(pvq)v (~p^q) = ~p
prove​

Answers

Answered by 5678yasminkhan
2

Solution

We have,

L.H.S. =∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∧q)

=(∼p∧∼q)∨(∼p∧q) ....(By De Morgan's Law)

=∼p∧(∼q∨q) ....(By Distributive Law)

=∼p∧T ....(By Complement Law)

=∼p= R.H.S.

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