Question

write differences between indian later vedic society and french society?​

Answer 1

Explanation:

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Answer 2

Vedic society vesrsus the French society

Explanation:

• Later Vedic society had been divided based on the birth & not by occupation as it was in the early Vedic period. As people of different races came to India from different parts of the world, they had mingled with the native people and this resulted in multiplication of castes.
• The inter-mingling  of people with diverse social & racial backgrounds had created division in "established caste-structure". The  4 caste system that  was here in the early Vedic period had further split into sub-castes.
• People who were involved in the administrative duties could not fit into rigid caste classification. The had assumed a new caste which was neither Kshatriya/Brahman. Another set of caste known as "untouchables" had come.

French Society

• France under the Ancient regime that is, prior to "the French Revolution" had divided society into 3 estates: the First Estate comprising the clergy,  the 2nd Estate comprising the nobility,  and the 3rd Estate comprising commoners
• The burden of taxation was a "crucial difference" between the estates in the realm. The nobles as well as the clergy were completely excluded from taxation and the ordinary people (commoners) had to pay  excessively large direct taxes.
• New taxation introduced under Louis XIV was a step forward towards a fair system before law and good public finances, but nobles and bourgeois won many "concessions & exemptions".
• Although Louis XV also tried to charge the 1st & 2nd estates with new taxes, "once again", the burden of the new tax was on the poorest citizens (commoners) with all the "exemptions & reductions" that was won by the "privileged classe"s.