English, asked by chikakudou, 4 months ago

X obliges himself to deliver a specific thing to Y on a certain date, The thing was lost by X, without his fault and before he has incurred in delay. Does it mean that X is already exempt from liability?
Suppose in the preceding problem, the thing was lost through the fault of Z, a third person. State the effect of the loss as far as X, Y and Z are concerned.​

Answers

Answered by yugbrahmbhatt000
0

Explanation:

gegshdhdhdue hwhshshbs

hshsh

shhs

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